201. After closure of the initial offer an open ended scheme, on going sales and repurchases must start within
o. One week
p. 30 days
q. 45 days
r. 180 days
👁Answer
Correct Answer: p. 30 days
202. For scheme to be able to change its fundamental attributes, it must obtain the consent of
o. 50% of the unit holders
p. 50% of the trustees
q. 75% of the unit holders
r. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r. none of the above
203. The prospectus or Offer Document containing the details of new scheme is first registered with the
q. AMFI
r.SEBI
s.Bombay Stock Exchange
t. Ministry of Finance
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r.SEBI
204. The offer document issued by mutual funds does not serve the purpose of
q. announcing the scheme
r. giving detailed information about the scheme
s. inviting the the investors
t. giving the fund manager's investment outlook for the next quarter
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. giving the fund manager's investment outlook for the next quarter
205. The prospectus of a close-ended fund is issued
o. every year
p. only once at the time of issue
q. every quarter
r. every six months
👁Answer
Correct Answer: p. only once at the time of issue
206. Fundamental attributes of scheme
q. do not include the objective of the scheme
r. can be changed without the investor's approval or knowledge
s. include the terms of the scheme
t. are not necessary for deciding whether to invest in the scheme or not
👁Answer
Correct Answer: s. include the terms of the scheme
207. The offer document
q. contains the terms of issue
r.gives no information relevant for making an investment decision
s.is not the operating document describing the scheme
t. cannot be called a reference document
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. contains the terms of issue
208. SEBI does not require the following to be included in the offer document issued by a mutual fund
q. details of the Sponsor and the AMC
r. Description of the Scheme & investment objective/strategy
s. Investors' Rights and Services
t. Performance of other mutual funds
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. Performance of other mutual funds
209. 'Key Information Memorandum' is
o. an abridged version of the offer document
p. the Memorandum & Articles of Association of the AMC
q. a sheet containing historical NAVs of other fund schemes
r. Annual Report of the AMC
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. an abridged version of the offer document
210. The offer document for a scheme remains valid even if
q. the AMC is reconstituted
r. entry or exit load are changed
s.the scheme's NAV changes
t. new plans are added to existing schemes
👁Answer
Correct Answer: s.the scheme's NAV changes
211. The offer document has to be fully revised and updated
q. every six months
r. once in two years
s.every quarter
t. every month
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r. once in two years
212. An addendum giving details of material change in the offer document should be circulated
o. distributors/brokers
p. unit holders
q. SEBI
r. all of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. SEBI
213. Which of the following is not true for offer documents of open-ended schemes
o. it is first issued at the time the scheme is launched
p. it is registered with SEBI
q. it has to be revised periodically
r. it need not be revised at all
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. it has to be revised periodically
214. All important disclosures that the mutual fund is required to make, by regulation, are contained in the offer document
q. True
r. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. True
215. The offer document issued when an open-ended scheme is launched is valid for all times, until amended
q. True
r. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. True
216 The most important source of information for a prospective investor is
o. offer document
p. Annual Report of the AMC
q. Economic Times
r. AMFI Newsletter
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. offer document
217 The offer document need not be studied by an investor before investing in a scheme
q. True
r. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r. False
218 The offer document is not a legal document
o. True
p. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: p. False
219 Initial issue expenses are charged to a scheme in the first year itself
m. True
n. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: n. False
220 Scheme-wise annual report of a mutual fund need not be
q. sent to all unit-holders
r. forwarded to SEBI
s.published as an advertisement
t. stock exchanges
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. stock exchanges
221 Mutual funds value their investments
o. at purchase price
p. on a mark-to-market basis
q. at par
r. at book value
👁Answer
Correct Answer: p. on a mark-to-market basis
222 Investors are totally exempt from paying any tax on the dividend income they receive from mutual funds
o. True
p. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. True
223 Income distributed to unit-holders by a debt fund is liable to dividend distribution tax
o. True
p. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: p. False
224 A close-ended has average weekly net assets of Rs 200 crore.As per SEBI regulations, the AMC can charge the fund with investment and advisory fees upto:
o. Rs 2.25 crore
p. Rs 2.00 crore
q. Rs 2.50 crore
r. Rs 3.00 crore
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. Rs 2.25 crore
225 A passive fund manager
q. researches stocks extensively
r.does not buy and sell stocks often
s.does not have to go through the process of stock selection
t. does not have to track stocks
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. researches stocks extensively
226 A fund manager managing an index fund
o. has to keep fund expenses low
p. does not have to research stocks
q. does not have to balance his portfolio
r. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. has to keep fund expenses low
227 A growth manager looks for
q. high current income
r. undervalued stocks
s.above average earnings growth
t. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: s.above average earnings growth
228 A value manager does not look for
o. stocks that are currently undervalued in the market
p. stocks whose worth will be recognised by the market in the long term
q. high current yield
r. long term capital appreciation
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. high current yield
229 From an investor's viewpoint, the most important is
q. a fund's investment style
r.performance of the fund
s.the fund manager's judgement
t. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r.performance of the fund
230 Fundamental analysis involves
i. checking the foundations of the company's factory building
j. research into the operations and finances of the company
k. studying the company's share prices
l. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: j. research into the operations and finances of the company
231. Which of the following is not considered for technical analysis
q. historical data on the company's share price
r. the company shares' trading volume
s.current market sentiment
t. the company's regulatory environment
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. the company's regulatory environment
232. Quantitative analysis is more likely to be done to evaluate a particular sector or industry rather than any specific stock
o. True
p. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. True
233. Fundamental analysis forms the basis to decide
q. when to buy a given share
r. whether to buy a given share or not
s.whether to use technical analysis or quantitative analysis
t. whether the company's factory can withstand earthquakes
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r. whether to buy a given share or not
234. Technical analysis guides the decision on
o. whether to buy or sell
p. the right time to buy or sell
q. whether company's technical personnel are adequately qualified
r. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: p. the right time to buy or sell
235. Which of the following is not an investment philosophy
o. capitalising on economic cycles
p. focusing on growth sectors
q. capitalisation
r. finding value stocks
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. capitalisation
236. When expecting a fall in market price, fund managers can reduce the loss in portfolio value by
k. speculating
l. not buying and selling shares at all for some days
m. using equity derivatives
n. giving TV interviews to improve sentiment
👁Answer
Correct Answer: m. using equity derivatives
237. Equity derivative instruments are
o. shares
p. bonds
q. contracts
r. notes
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. contracts
238. A futures contract allows one to buy or sell the underlying shares, but need not result in delivery
q. True
r. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. True
239. Derivatives cannot be based on market indices
q. True
r. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r. False
240. In a mutual fund, the overall decisions on allocating money to particular industries/sectors are taken by
q. equity analysts
r.fund managers
s.security dealers
t. trustees
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r.fund managers
241. Continuous tracking of the companies in which a mutual fund has invested is done by
m. continuous tracking systems
n. equity analysts
o. trustees
p. security dealers
👁Answer
Correct Answer: n. equity analysts
242. Security dealers of a mutual fund
o. guard the cabin of the fund manager
p. execute buy and sell orders for the fund
q. decide which shares to buy or sell
r. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: p. execute buy and sell orders for the fund
243. As per SEBI's requirements each scheme of a mutual fund should have a different fund manager
o. True
p. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. True
244. Debt securities bought at a discount to their face value are generally
m. interest bearing
n. zero coupon bonds
o. paying interest at a floating rate
p. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: n. zero coupon bonds
245. In India, a large part of debt securities pay interest on
m. a floating rate basis
n. a fixed rate plus a variable portion
o. a fixed rate
p. zero coupon basis
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. a fixed rate
246. The Indian debt market is largely wholesale in nature
o. True
p. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. True
247. In the wholesale debt market, the largest proportion of trading is seen in
1. Government Securities
2. Corporate Bonds
3. T-Bills
4. PSU Bonds
👁Answer
Correct Answer: 1. Government Securities
248. The largest proportion of trades done in the wholesale debt market is accounted by
o. mutual funds
p. foreign banks
q. Indian banks
r. financial institutions
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. Indian banks
249. Certificates of Deposits (CDs) are issued by
o. Regional Rural Banks
p. Corporates
q. Scheduled commercial banks
r. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. Scheduled commercial banks
250. Commercial Paper is issued by Corporate bodies
o. to meet short-term working capital requirements
p. to finance the acquisition of long term capital assets
q. to retire long term debt
r. to pay dividend
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. to meet short-term working capital requirements
251. Government securities are issued through the RBI
s.True
t. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: s. True
252. The yield on Treasury Bill (T-Bill) is determined by
s.the Government of India
t. auction
u. the State Governments
v. floating rate method
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. auction
253. Which of the following are not normally found in the portfolio of a debt fund
u. long-dated Government Securities
v. Corporate debentures
w. bonds issued by financial institutions
x. certificates of deposit issued by banks
👁Answer
Correct Answer: x. certificates of deposit issued by banks
254. Which of the following do not represent the amount an investor of a debt security will be paid upon maturity
u. par value
v. face value
w. fair value
x. redemption value
👁Answer
Correct Answer: w. fair value
255. Coupon of a debt security refers to
s. a piece of paper attached to the certificate
t. the return on investor would earn
u. the amount rate of interest paid on par value of the bond
v. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. the amount rate of interest paid on par value of the bond
256. Which of the following do not apply to the term 'maturity' of a debt security?
u. the date on which the certificates becomes old
v. the term of the bond
w. the date of redemption
x. the date on which the issuer has to repay the amount
👁Answer
Correct Answer: w. the date of redemption
257. Call or put provisions are used to modify the fixed maturity of debt securities
u. True
v. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. True
258. A call provision in a debt issue allows the issuer to
u. call out the names of the investors
v. redeem the debt on maturity
w. extend the tenure of the debt
x. redeem the debt before maturity
👁Answer
Correct Answer: x. redeem the debt before maturity
259. A put provision in a debt issue allows
1. investor to put away the certificates in safe deposit vaults
2. investors to redeem debt prior to maturity
3. issuers to redeem debt prior to maturity
4. investors to extend the tenure of debt
👁Answer
Correct Answer: 2. investors to redeem debt prior to maturity
260. Current yield relates interest on a security to
u. its current market price
v. its face value
w. its fair value
x. the current price of T-Bills
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. its current market price
261. To compare bonds with different coupon rates, maturities and prices, investors would use:
u. current yield
v. technical analysis
w. yield to maturity
x. fundamental analysis
👁Answer
Correct Answer: w. yield to maturity
262. When interest rates rise, bond prices
1. also rise
2. fall
3. are not affected
4. fluctuate either up or down
👁Answer
Correct Answer: 2. fall
263. Yield curve is also known as
s. Curve of Interest
t. Term Structure of Interest Rates
u. Curve that yields
v. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer:
t. Term Structure of Interest Rates
264. An important indicator of expected trends in interest rates is
s.The Economic Times
t. the Sensex
u. the Yield Curve
v. the Chief Minister's Speech
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. the Yield Curve
265. It may not be possible to reinvest interest received at the same rate as principal. This is known as
s.reinvestment risk
t. inflation risk
u. interest-rate risk
v. call risk
👁Answer
Correct Answer: s.reinvestment risk
266. A bond's rating indicates its
s. reinvestment risk
t. default risk
u. inflation risk
v. interest-rate risk
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. default risk
267. If a bond cannot be sold at a price near its value, it means that investment in this bond has
s. high liquidity risk
t. high default risk
u. low liquidity risk
v. inflation risk
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. high default risk
268. The additional yield required to account for the risk of default by the borrower is known as
q. yield plus
r.yield spread
s.yield extra
t. yield premium
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r.yield spread
269. A high credit rating does not mean
o. high yield spread
p. high perceived safety
q. low yield spread
r. low risk premium
👁Answer
Correct Answer: o. high yield spread
270. If 10-year government securities Neil 10% and a 10-Year fixed deposit in a company yields 12%, the yield spread is
u. 12%
v. 22%
w. 10%
x. 2%
👁Answer
Correct Answer: x. 2%
271. The "duration" of an interest-bearing bond is
s. longer than its maturity
t. less than its maturity
u. equal to its maturity
v. the quality of paper used for the certificate
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. less than its maturity
272. A bond with a coupon of 9% when interest rates for similar maturities are 11% will sell
q. above par
r.below par
s.at par
t. at a price unrelated to the prevailing interest rate
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r.below par
273. Changes in foreign exchange rates have no bearing on interest rates
q. True
r. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r. False
274. Inflation and interest rates are inversely proportional
s.True
t. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. False
275. Investment policies of a mutual fund are determined by
u. the fund manager
v. the AMC management
w. the marketing department based on what distributors want
x. the investors
👁Answer
Correct Answer: v. the AMC management
276. Which of the following measures are not taken by SEBI for protecting investors of mutual funds
s. mandating minimum levels of
diversification for mutual funds
t. ensuring that the funds are not used to favour a few companies
u. tracking the securities that each fund has invested in
v. ensuring that the funds are invested in approved securities only
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. tracking the securities that each fund has invested in
277. As per SEBI norms, a fund's investments, in the equity shares of any one company are restricted to
u. 25% of NAV
v. 10% of NAV
w. 50% of NAV
x. 100% of NAV
👁Answer
Correct Answer: v. 10% of NAV
278. A mutual fund manager is not allowed to sell short when he expects a crash in the market
s.True
t. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: s.True
279. In a mutual fund, having many schemes, al securities bought can be held in a general account and transferred later to various schemes to attain certain profit or loss objectives
u. True
v. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: v. False
280. A mutual fund may invest in short-term deposits of scheduled commercial banks
m. True
n. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: m. True
281. Mutual funds are allowed to lend
u. loans
v. securities
w. physical assets
x. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: v. securities
282. In case of listed securities of group companies of the sponsor, mutual fund is not allowed to invest
q. 25% of its net assets
r.10% of its net assets
s.at all
t. >5% of net assets
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. 25% of its net assets
283. A mutual fund may transfer investments from one scheme to another
u. not at all
v. at current market rates
w. at cost price
x. at a fixed premium over market rate
👁Answer
Correct Answer: v. at current market rates
284. Interest Rate Risk for an Indian debt fund can be reduced by using
s.Futures
t. Options
u. Interest Rate Swaps
v. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. Interest Rate Swaps
285. The Interest Rate Forecasting Unit of a debt fund is generally manned by
s. technicians
t. statisticians
u. economists & econometricians
v. accountants
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. economists & econometricians
286. AMCs need not maintain records in support of each investment decision
o. True
p. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: p. False
287. When interest rates for similar maturities' bonds are 11%, bond with a 9% coupon rate will sell
s. above par
t. below par
u. at par
v. at a price unrelated to the interest rates for similar securities
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. below par
288. The most suitable measure for a fund's performance does not depend on the
s. type of fund
t. investment objective of the fund
u. financial market conditions
v. amount invested by investor
👁Answer
Correct Answer: v. amount invested by investor
289. If the NAV of an open-ended fund was Rs.16 at the beginning of the year and Rs.22 after 13 months, the annualised change in NAV is
s. 6.0%
t. 34.6%
u. 40.6%
v. 37.5%
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. 40.6%
290. Change in NAV as a measure of fund performance is more suitable for
u. growth funds
v. income funds
w. funds with withdrawal plans
x. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. growth funds
291. The difference between NAV change and total return as measures of fund performance is
q. none
r.total return takes dividend into account while NAV change does not
s.total return does not take NAVs into account
t. total return does not take the time period into account
👁Answer
Correct Answer: r.total return takes dividend into account while NAV change does not
292. The most suitable measure of fund performance for all fund types is
s.NAV Change
t. Total Return
u. Total Return with reinvestment
v. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. Total Return with reinvestment
293. The expense ratio used for measuring fund performance is an indicator of
q. product market condition
r. growth in the economy
s.prevalent market practices
t. the fund's efficiency
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. the fund's efficiency
294. The Expense Ratio as a measure of a fund's performance is defined by a fund's
q. total expenses and average net assets
r.total expenses and total assets
s.average expenses and average net assets
t. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. total expenses and average net assets
295. While computing the Expense Ratio for a fund, brokerage commissions on the fund's transactions are not included in the fund expenses
q. True
r. False
👁Answer
Correct Answer: q. True
296. The Expense Ratio is not of utmost importance in case of
q. Debt fund
r. Index fund
s.Equity fund
t. Bond fund
👁Answer
Correct Answer: s.Equity fund
297. The Expense Ratio is not affected by
p. fund size
q. average account size
r. portfolio composition
s. stock market conditions
👁Answer
Correct Answer: s. stock market conditions
298. The Income Ratio as a measure of a fund's performance is defined by the fund's
s. total income and total assets
t. net investment income and net assets
u. total income and net assets
v. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. net investment income and net assets
299. The Income Ratio is more suitable for evaluating the performance of
s. Equity Funds
t. Growth Funds
u. Regular Income Funds
v. Index Funds
👁Answer
Correct Answer: u. Regular Income Funds
300. Portfolio turnover rate of a fund measure the
s. size of the fund's portfolio
t. amount of buying and selling done by the fund
u. the average number of units sold by the fund in one day
v. none of the above
👁Answer
Correct Answer: t. amount of buying and selling done by the fund
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