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MCQs on Universe/Sun/Planets/Earth-4

76. Consider the following two statements, one labeled as the Assertion (A) and the

other as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the

correct answer using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The same face of the Moon is always presented to the Earth.

Reason (R): The Moon rotates about its own axis in days which is about the same

time that it takes to orbit the earth.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

77. Consider the following two statements. One labeled as the Assertion (A) and other

as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct

answer by using the codes given below.

Assertion (A): Existence of human life on Venus is highly improbable.

Reason (R): Venus has extremely high level of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

78. The term syzygy is referred to when

(a) The Earth is at perihelion and the Moon at perigee.

(b) The Earth is at aphelion and the Moon at apogee.

(c) The Moon and the Sun are at right angles with reference to the Earth.

(d) The Moon, Sun and Earth lie along a straight line.

79. Consider the following two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the

other as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the

correct answer by using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): To orbit around Sun, the planet Mars takes lesser time than time

taken by the Earth.

Reason (R): The diameter of the planet Mars is less than that of the Earth.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

80. The twinkling of a star is due to

(a) the variation in the intensity of light emitted by it with time.

(b) the variation in the composition of the star with time.

(c) the transit of other celestial objects across the line of sight.

(d) the atmospheric refraction of starlight.

81. Which of the following phenomenon is/are the effect of the rotation of the earth?

1. Apparent movement of the Sun, the Moon and the Stars.

2. Flatness of the poles and bulge at the equator.

3. Occurrence of sunrise, noon and sunset.

4. Magnetic field of the earth.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

82. What is meant by the eclipse of Moon?

(a) It occurs when the Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon and the centers of

all three are on the same straight line.

(b) It is path along which the moon revolves.

(c) For any place, it is the average angle made by a line drawn from the moon to place

and horizontal at midnight.

(d) When the Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth, it causes the shadows of

the Moon to fall on Earth.

83. Consider the following statements:

1. The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with reflected

light.

2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than the albedo of the Earth.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

84. The inexhaustible source of energy of the stars is due to

(a) decay of radioactive elements.

(b) conversion of Hydrogen to Helium.

(c) conversion of Helium to Hydrogen.

(d) excess of oxygen that helps burning and release of energy.

85. Consider the following statements

1. The Earth receives the Sun’s energy at the infrared end of the spectrum.

2. The Earth re-radiates the Sun’s heat as ultraviolet energy.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. Consider the following statements regarding asteroids and comets?

1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held

together by rocky and metallic material.

2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets

are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.

3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

87. The Blue Moon phenomenon occurs

(a) when two full moons occur in the same month.

(b) when two full moons appear in the same month thrice in a calendar year.

(c) when four full moons appear in two consecutive months of the same calendar year.

(d) None of the above

88. Consider the following two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and other

as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct

answer by using the code given below:

Assertion (A): Comets revolve round the sun only in long elliptical orbit.

Reason (R): A comet develops a tail when it gets close to the sun.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

89. The eclipse of Sun occurs

(a) when the Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth.

(b) when the Earth comes between the Sun and Moon.

(c) when the Sun comes between the Earth and Moon.

(d) None of these

90. Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth is nearest to the Sun on about January 3.

2. Earth is farthest from the Sun on about July 4.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

the lists

List-I List-II

(Planets) (Satellites)

A. Mars 1. Tethys

B. Jupiter 2. Deimos

C. Saturn 3. Europa

D. Uranus 4. Titania

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 3 2 1

92. Consider the following statements:

1. The nearest large galaxy of Milky Way is the Andromeda galaxy.

2. The Sun’s nearest known star is a red dwarf star called Proxima Centauri, at a

distance of 4.3 light years away.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

93. Consider the following two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and other

as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct

answer by using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): The planet Neptune appears blue in colour.

Reason (R): The presence of Methane gas in the atmosphere of Neptune is

responsible for its colour.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

94. Consider the following statements:

1. Since Venus is seen in the East in morning and in the West in evening. It is called

‘Morning star’ as well as ‘Evening star’.

2. The Earth looks blue when seen from the space due to the presence of large

amount of water, hence it is called ‘Blue Planet’.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

95. Consider the following two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and other

as Reason (R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct

answer by using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Venus is the brightest object in the sky after sunset.

Reason (R): Venus is the second planet from the Sun in our solar system.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

96. Consider the following statements:

1. Our solar system is located in the orion arm of the Milky way galaxy, about two-third

of the way out from the centre.

2. The solar system formed from an interstellar cloud of dust and gas or nebulla about

4.6 billion years ago.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. There are two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason

(R). Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer by

using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): According to Nova hypothesis, Solar planets were formed because

of explosion of Super Nova.

Reason (R): A star becomes Super Nova in that stage when it has lack of

hydrogen element.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, but R is false.

(d) A is false, but R is true.

98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

the lists:

List-I List-II

(Planets) (Satellites)

A. Earth 1. Triton

B. Jupiter 2. Titan

C. Saturn 3. Ganymede

D. Neptune 4. Moon

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 3 4 2 1

99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below

the list:

List-I List-II

A. Planet 1. Moon

B. Satellite 2. Uranus

C. Comet 3. Mariner

D. Artificial

satellite

4. Halley

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 2 1 3 4

100. Consider the following statements:

1. Only two planets Venus and Uranus revolve around the sun from east to west i.e.,

clockwise.

2. While other planets revolve around the sun from west to east i.e., anti-clockwise.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer Key:

76. (a) The same side of the Moon is always faces the Earth because the Moon spins

once on its axis in exactly the same amount of time that the Moon revolves

around the Earth.

77. (a) Existence of human life on Venus is highly improbable because Venus has

extremely high level of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.

78. (d) The term SYZYGY is referred to when the moon, sun and earth lie along a

straight line. As seen from the Earth, a solar eclipse is a type of eclipse that

occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun and Earth, and the Moon fully

or partially blocks (“occults”) the Sun. This can happen only at new moon,

when the Sun and the Moon are in conjunction as seen from Earth in an

alignment referred to as SYZYGY. In a total eclipse, the disk of the Sun is fully

obscured by the Moon. In partial and annular eclipses only part of the Sun is

obscured.

79. (d) The diameter of the planet Mars is less than that of the Earth. Mars has

approximately half the diameter of Earth. It is less dense than Earth, having

about 15% of Earth’s volume and 11% of the mass. Its diameter is 6,779 Kms.

It takes more time than Earth to orbit around the sun.

80. (d) Twinkling of stars is due to the atmospheric refraction of stars. Stars twinkle

because of turbulence in the atmosphere of the Earth. As the atmosphere

churns, the light from the star is refracted in different directions. This causes

the star’s image to change slightly in brightness and position, hence “twinkle.”

This is one of the reasons the Hubble telescope is so successful: in space,

there is no atmosphere to make the stars twinkle, allowing a much better

image to be obtained.

81. (d) All the given phenomena are the effect of the rotation of the earth. The Earth

rotates from the west towards the east. As viewed from the North Star or

polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise.

82. (a) Eclipse of moon occurs when the Earth comes between the Sun and Moon it

causes the shadow of the Earth to fall on Moon. A lunar eclipse can only happen during a full moon.

83. (a) The albedo of an object determines its visual brightness when viewed with

reflected light. Albedo is the fraction of solar energy (shortwave radiation)

reflected from the Earth back into space. It is a measure of the reflectivity of

the earth’s surface.

84. (b) The inexhaustible source of energy of the stars is due to conversion of

Hydrogen to Helium. In the interior of a star, the particles move rapidly in every

direction because of the high temperatures present. Every so often a proton

moves close enough to a nucleus to be captured, and a nuclear reaction takes

place. Only protons of extremely high energy (many times the average energy

in a star such as the Sun) are capable of producing nuclear events of this kind.

A minimum temperature required for fusion is roughly 10 million K. Since the

energies of protons are proportional to temperature, the rate of energy

production rises steeply as temperature increases.

85. (d) The sun radiates vast quantities of energy into space, across a wide spectrum

of wavelengths. Most of the radiant energy from the sun is concentrated in the

visible and near-visible parts of the spectrum. The narrow band of visible light,

between 400 and 700 nm, represents 43% of the total radiant energy emitted.

Wavelengths shorter than the visible account for 7 to 8% of the total, but are

extremely important because of their high energy per photon. The shorter the

wavelength of light, the more energy it contains.

86. (c) Asteroids are small rocky planetoids. They are small, airless rocky worlds

revolving around the sun that are too small to be called planets. They are also

known as planetoids or minor planets. In total, the mass of all the asteroids is

less than that of Earth’s moon. Comets are formed of frozen gases held

together by rocky and metallic material. Comets show a perceptible glowing

tail while asteroids do not.

87. (a) Blue moon phenomenon occurs when two full moons occurs in the same

month. A blue moon is the second full moon in a calendar month. For a blue

moon to occur the first of the full moons must appear at or near the beginning

of the month so that the second will fall within the same month (the average

span between two moons is 29.5 days).

88. (b) Comets revolve around the sun only in long elliptical orbit. A comet develops a

tail when it gets close to the Sun.

89. (a) The eclipse of Sun occurs when the Moon comes between Sun and the Earth.

The Moon orbits the Earth once a month, and eclipses happen if it lines up

exactly with the Earth and the Sun. Solar eclipses occur at New Moon, when

the Moon is between Earth and the Sun. Lunar eclipses occur at Full Moon,

when Earth is between the Sun and the Moon. Eclipses do not take place

every month because the orbits of the Moon and Earth are tilted at an angle.

Most of the time, the line- up is not precise enough for an eclipse.

90. (c) On January 3, our Earth made its closest approach to the Sun for the year--

an event astronomers call perihelion. At perihelion, the Earth is about 147.5

million km away from the Sun. The Earth is farthest from the Sun on 4th July.

91. (b) Deimos is the satellite of Mars. Europa is the satellite of Jupiter. Tethys is the

satellite of Saturn. Titania is the satellite of Uranus.

92. (c) The nearest large galaxy of Milky Way is Andromeda galaxy. At a distance of

about 2.5 million light years, the Andromeda galaxy (also known as NGC 224

and M31) is the nearest galaxy to the Earth apart from smaller companion

galaxies such as the Magellanic Clouds. The Sun’s nearest known star is a red

dwarf star called Proxima Centauri, at a distance of 4.3 light years away.

93. (a) Neptune’s atmosphere is made up of hydrogen, helium and methane. The

methane in Neptune’s upper atmosphere absorbs the red light from the sun

but reflects the blue light from the Sun back into space. This is why Neptune

appears blue.

94. (c) The earth looks blue when seen from the space due to the presence of large

amount of water.

95. (b) Venus is the brightest object in the sky after Sunset. Venus is the second

planet from the sun in our solar system.

96. (c) Our solar system is located in the orion arm of the milky way galaxy, about

two-third of the way out from the centre. The sun is about 26,000 light-years

from the center of the Milky Way Galaxy, which is about 80,000 to 120,000

light-years across (and less than 7,000 light-years thick). We are located on

one of its spiral arms, out towards the edge. It takes the sun (and our solar

system) roughly 200-250 million years to orbit once around the Milky Way. In

this orbit, we (and the rest of the Solar System) are traveling at a velocity of

about 155 miles/sec (250 km/sec).

97. (b) According to Nova hypothesis, Solar planets were formed because of

explosion of Super Nova. A star becomes Super Nova in that stage when it

has lack of hydrogen elements. A supernova happens where there is a change

in the core, or center, of a star. A change can occur in two different ways, with

both resulting in a supernova.

The first type of supernova happens in binary star systems. Binary stars are two

stars that orbit the same point. One of the stars, a carbon-oxygen white dwarf,

steals matter from its companion star. Eventually, the white dwarf accumulates

too much matter. Having too much matter causes the star to explode, resulting

in a supernova.

The second type of supernova occurs at the end of a single star’s lifetime. As the

star runs out of nuclear fuel, some of its mass flows into its core. Eventually,

the core is so heavy that it cannot withstand its own gravitational force. The

core collapses, which results in the giant explosion of a supernova. The sun is

a single star, but it does not have enough mass to become a supernova.

98. (c) Moon is the satellite of Earth. Ganymede is the satellite of Jupiter. Triton is the

satellite of Neptune. Titan is the satellite of Saturn.

99. (a) Uranus is a planet. Moon is a satellite. Halley is a comet. Mariner is an

artificial satellite. The Mariner program was conducted by the American space

agency NASA in conjunction with Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) that

launched a series of robotic interplanetary probes designed to investigate

Mars, Venus and Mercury from 1962 to 1973. The program included a number

of firsts, including the first planetary flyby, the first pictures from another planet,

the first planetary orbiter, and the first gravity assist maneuver.

100. (c) Only two planets Venus and Uranus revolve around the sun from east to west

while other planets revolve around the sun from west to east.

MCQs on Universe/Sun/Planets/Earth-3

51. What is the most accurate description of the shape of the earth ?

(a) A circle

(b) A sphere

(c) A geoid

(d) An oblate sphere

52. When the earth is at its maximum distance from the sun it is said to be in

(a) aphelion

(b) perihelion

(c) apogee

(d) perigee

53. What is the primary cause of the day and night ?

(a) Earth’s annual motion

(b) Earth’s rotation on its axis

(c) Inclination of the earth’s axis and its rotation

(d) Inclination of the earth’s axis and its revolution

54. What causes the change of seasons ?

(a) Earth’s rotation and revolution

(b) Earth’s revolution

(c) Earth’s revolution and inclination of its axis

(d) Earth’s rotation and inclination of its axis

55. On which planet would one witness sunrise in the west ?

(a) Jupiter

(b) Venus

(c) Saturn

(d) Mercury

56. The latitude is the angular distance of a point on the earth’s surface with respect to

the

(a) Equator

(b) Prime meridian

(c) Pole star

(d) Tropic of Cancer

57. The longitude of a place is its

(a) angular distance east or west of the prime meridian

(b) angular distance north or south of the equator

(c) angular distance east or west of International Date Line

(d) angular distance with respect to the pole star

58. On which date is the earth in perihelion ?

(a) June 21

(b) Dec 22

(c) January 3

(d) July 4

59. The earth is in aphelion on

(a) June 21

(b) Dec. 22

(c) Sept. 23

(d) July 4

60. The sun is veritical over the Tropic of Cancer on

(a) March 21

(b) June 21

(c) Sept. 23

(d) Dec. 22

61. What is most important about the Arctic and the Antarctic circles ?

(a) Within these circle only can the days and nights be longer than 24 hours

(b) The days and nights are never more than 24 hours long here

(c) Both areas frozen continents

(d) Both regions are uninhabited

62. What is true about the equinox ?

(a) Vertical sun over the Tropic of Cancer

(b) Vertical sun over the Tropic of Capricorn

(c) Vertical sun over the equator

(d) Continuous day in the polar regions

63. How much is the mass of the moon when compared with that of the earth ?

(a) 1/49

(b) 1/81

(c) 1/51

(d) 1/8

64. How much of the total surface area of the moon is never visible from the earth

(a) 41 per cent

(b) 47 per cent

(c) 53 per cent

(d) 59 per cent

65. The average distance between the moon and the earth’s

(a) 384,000 km

(b) 267,000 km

(c) 540,000 km

(d) 576,000 km

66. The average distance between the sun and earth is

(a) 145 million km

(b) 150 million km

(c) 155 million km

(d) 160 million km

67. Greenwich mean time is ––––––––––– IST.

(a) 5.5 hours ahead

(b) 12 hours ahead

(c) 4.5 hours behind

(d) 5.5 hours behind

68. What is the unit of measurement of distance between celestial bodies ?

(a) Nautical mile

(b) Statute mile

(c) Light year

(d) Kilometre

69. On the surface of the moon

(a) the mass of an object is more but it weighs lesser

(b) the mass and weight both remain unchanged

(c) the mass is the same but the weight is lesser

(d) the mass is more but the weight is lesser

70. The shortest route between two places is along the

(a) latitudes

(b) longitudes

(c) rivers

(d) direction of winds

71. Consider the following statements regarding asteroids:

1. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun.

2. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large as 1000 km.

3. The orbit of asteroids lies between orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

72. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to our solar

system?

(a) The earth is the densest of all the planets in our solar system.

(b) The predominant element in the composition of Earth is silicon.

(c) The Sun contains 75 percent of the mass of the solar system.

(d) The diameter of the sun is 190 times that of the Earth.

73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below

the list:

List-I                                                                                         List-II 

(Special characteristic)                                                     (Name of Planet)

A. Smallest planet of the solar system                             1. Mercury

B. Largest planet of the solar system                                2. Venus

C. Planet second from the Sun in the Solar system         3. Jupiter

D. Planet nearest to the Sun                                             4. Saturn

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 1 1 2 3

(d) 1 3 2 1

74.Diamond Ring is a phenomenon observed

(a) at the start of a total solar eclipse.

(b) at the end of a total solar eclipse.

(c) only along the peripheral regions of the totality trail.

(d) only in the central regions of the totality trail.

75. The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun because

(a) the comet rotates around the sun, the lighter mass of the comet is pushed away

due to the centrifugal force alone.

(b) the comet rotates, the lighter mass of the comet is attracted by some star situated

in the direction of its tail.

(c) The radiation emitted by the sun exerts a radial pressure on the comet throwing its

tail away from the Sun.

(d) The tail of the comet always exists in the same orientation.

Answer Key: 

51. (d)

52. (a)

53. (b)

54. (c) The revolution of the earth around the sun alone is not enough for change of

seasons. Had the axis of the earth been vertical, the sun would have been

vertical at the same latitude throughout the year. Therefore the revolution of

the earth and its inclination, both are necessary for the change of seasons.

55. (b) The direction of the sunrise depends upon the direction of the rotation of the

earth on its axis. Any planet rotation on its axis from west to east will

experience sunrise in the east and vice versa. Venus rotates on its axis from

east to west and thus experiences sunrise in the west.

56. (a) Latitude is distance North or south of the equator. It may also be defined as

an angle which ranges from 0° at the equator to 90° at the poles.

57. (a) Longitude is measured in degrees East or West of the Prime Meridian.

58. (c) The Earth is closest to the Sun or at the perihelion on January 3, when it is

winter in the Northern Hemisphere.

59. (d) The Earth is farthest from the sun at the Aphelion on July 4, when it is

summer in the Northern Hemisphere.

60. (b) Sun is vertical over the tropic of cancer on June 21 or Summer Solstice.

61. (a)

62. (c)

63. (b)

64. (a)

65. (a)

66. (b)

67. (d)

68. (c)

69. (c)

70. (b) The shortest ditance between two places on the earth surface is along the

Great Circles. The property of a great circle is that a plane passed along it

passes through the centre of the earth and divides it into two equal parts or

hemispheres. Among the latitudes only the equator is a great circle while

among longitudes all of them are great circles.

71. (a) Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun. They are

generally small but some has the diameter of 1000 km. Asteroids are minor

planets whose orbits lie between Jupiter and Mars. These are said to be the

fragments of a larger planet disrupted long ago. Their number is estimated to

be 30,000 pieces of rocky debris out of which more than half are known.

72. (a) The Earth is the densest planet in the solar system. The density of Earth is

5.513g/cm3. This is an average of all the material on the planet.

73. (d) Smallest planet of the solar system is Mercury while the largest is Jupiter.

Planet second from the Sun in the solar system is Venus; planet nearest to the

Sun is Mercury.

74. (c) Diamond Ring is the phenomenon which occurs along the peripheral regions

of the totality tail. As the last bits of sunlight pass through the valleys on the

moon’s limb, and the faint corona around the sun is just becoming visible, it

looks like a ring with glittering diamonds on it.

75. (a) The tail of the comet is always away from the Sun because the comet rotates

around the Sun, the lighter mass of the comet is pushed away due to the

centrifugal force alone. The tail of a comet is made up of gas and tiny particles

that are carried away from the sun by the solar wind. Comets are formed

mostly from ice and dust, and their tails only form when they are close enough

to be melted by heat from the sun. As the nucleus of a comet begins to melt, it

forms a cloud of gas and small particles known as the coma. When comets

travel close enough into the center of our solar system, pressure from sunlight

causes the coma to form a tail that stretches away from the sun.

MCQs on Universe/Sun/Planets/Earth-2

 26. The planet whose period of rotation is longer than the period of revolution around

the sun is

(a) Mercury

(b) Mars

(c) Venus

(d) Neptune

27. The last stage in the life cycle of a star is

(a) Black Hole

(b) Supernova

(c) Red Giant

(d) White Dwarf

28. Time taken by Sun’s light to reach Earth is

(a) 8 min 18 sec

(b) 9 min

(c) 9 min 18 sec

(d) 6 min 18 sec

29. Time taken by Moon’s light to reach Earth is

(a) 58 sec

(b) 1.34 sec

(c) 1.58 sec

(d) 2.32 sec

30. Space between Earth and Moon is known as

(a) Cislunar

(b) Fulalunar

(c) Nebula

(d) None of these

31. Our solar system is located in which Galaxy?

(a) Proxima Centauri

(b) Alpha Centauri

(c) Milky Way

(d) Andromeda

32. Which of the following stars is also known as Pulsar?

(a) Red Giant

(b) White Dwarf

(c) Neutron Star

(d) Massive Star

33. Which of the following stars is known as Fossil star?

(a) Protostar

(b) Dog Star

(c) Red Giant

(d) White Dwarf

34. The energy of sun is produced by

(a) Nuclear fission

(b) Ionisation

(c) Nuclear fusion

(d) Oxidation

35. Which of the following does not belong to solar system?

(a) Asteroids

(b) Comets

(c) Planets

(d) Nebulae

36. Which one of the following planets is nearest to the earth?

(a) Mercury

(b) Venus

(c) Mars

(d) Uranus

37. Cycle of sun spots is

(a) 9 years

(b) 10 years

(c) 11 years

(d) 12 years

38. The group of small pieces of rocks revolving round the sun between the orbits of

Mars and Jupiter are called

(a) Meteors

(b) Comets

(c) Meteorites

(d) Asteroids

39. Which one of the following conditions is most relevant for the presence of life on

mars?

(a) Atmospheric composition

(b) Thermal conditions

(c) Occurrence of ice cap and frozen water

(d) Occurrence of ozone

40. Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around

the sun?

(a) Earth

(b) Jupiter

(c) Mars

(d) Venus

41. Which planet is called “Evening star”?

(a) Mars

(b) Jupiter

(c) Venus

(d) Saturn

42. The Earth distance becomes minimum from the sun?

(a) 3rd January

(b) 4th July

(c) 22nd March

(d) 21st September

43. Which planet is surrounded by ring?

(a) Saturn

(b) Mars

(c) Venus

(d) Earth

44. Lunar eclipse occurs

(a) When moon lies between earth and sun

(b) When earth lies between sun and moon

(c) When sun lies between earth and moon

(d) None of these

45. By how much degree the earth is inclined on its own axis

(a) 231/2

(b) 661/2

(c) 241/2

(d) 691/2

46. The planet Pluto has been abandoned from the group of conventional planet and

kept in the group of dwarf planet by a summit held in

(a) Paris

(b) London

(c) Geneva

(d) Prague

47. Which of the following elements occurs the most abundantly in our universe?

(a) Hydrogen

(b) Oxygen

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Helium

48. Two planets which have no satellites

(a) Earth and Uranus

(b) Mercury and Venus

(c) Mercury and Mars

(d) Venus and Mars

49. The Astronaut looks the sky in the space

(a) Blue

(b) Black

(c) Red

(d) White

50. The black part of the moon is always calm and dark which is called

(a) Sea of tranquility

(b) Ocean of storms

(c) Area of storms

(d) none of these

Answer Key:

26. (c) Venus is the planet whose period of rotation is longer than the period of

revolution around the sun. The period of rotation for Venus is 243 days. In

other words, Venus takes 243 days to turn once on its axis so that the stars

are in the same position in the sky.

27. (d) The last stage in the life circle of a star is white dwarf. Small stars, like the

Sun, will undergo a relatively peaceful and beautiful death that sees them pass

through a planetary nebula phase to become a white dwarf.

28. (a) On an average Sunlight reaches on Earth in 8 min. 20 sec.

29. (b) Moonlight reaches on Earth around 1.3 sec.

30. (a) Space between Earth and Moon is known as Cislunar. Pertaining to the space

between the earth and the orbit of the moon.

31. (c) Our solar system is located in Milky Way Galaxy. The Milky Way is the galaxy

that contains our Solar System. Its name “milky” is derived from its

appearance as a dim glowing band arching across the night sky in which the

naked eye cannot distinguish individual stars.

32. (c) Neutron star is also known as Pulsar. A neutron star is a type of stellar

remnant that can result from the gravitational collapse of a massive star.

33. (d) White Dwarf is known as Fossil star. They are supported by electron

degeneracy pressure. It amplifies the contrast with red giants. They are both

very hot and very small. They are the opposite of black holes. They are the

end-products of small, low-mass stars.

34. (c) Sun generates its energy by nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium.

35. (d) Nebulae is an interstellar cloud of dust in outer space.

36. (b) Venus is nearest planet to Earth. Although distance is not fixed and it may

vary from 38 million to 261 million Km depending upon orbital motion.

37. (c) The number of sunspots observed on the surface of the sun varies from year

to year in a cyclical way. The length of the cycle is around 11 years on

average.

38. (d) The group of small pieces of rocks revolving round the sun between the orbits

of Mars and Jupiter are called asteroids.

39. (c) Presence of ice cap and frozen water on Mars is one of the most significant

reasons for presence of life forms.

40. (b) Jupiter takes maximum time for one revolution around the sun. Jupiter

revolves or orbits around the Sun once every 11.86 Earth years, or once every

4,330.6 Earth days. Jupiter travels at an average speed of 29,236 miles.

41. (c) Venus is called the Evening star. Because it trails the Sun in the sky and

brightens into view immediately after the Sun sets and when the sky is dark

enough. When Venus is at its brightest, it appears visible merely minutes after

the Sun has set.

42. (a) The Earth shows minimum distance from the Sun on 3rd January.

43. (a) Saturn is surrounded by ring. Saturn has a ring around it because it is

believed to be very big and has lots of moons, meaning it has a strong pull of

gravity. Another major reason is that the asteroids fling into its orbit and the

rings are not solid.

44. (b) In Lunar eclipse Earth comes between Sun and Moon.

45. (a) Earth is inclined by 23 1/2 degree on its axis.

46. (d) The planet Pluto has been declared as a dwarf planet in the summit held in

Prague. In August 2006 the International Astronomical Union (IAU)

downgraded the status of Pluto to that of “dwarf planet.” This means that from

now on only the rocky worlds of the inner Solar System and the gas giants of

the outer system will be designated as planets.

47. (a)

48. (b)

49. (b) The sky looks black from the space. In space, sunlight or any kind of star light

does not have anything from which to bounce off.

50. (a) The black part of the moon is called sea of tranquility. Sea of tranquility is not

an actual sea but rather the point at which Apollo 11 first landed on when it

reached the moon. It is a lunar mare which mainly consists of basalt rock and

is located on the Tranquillitatis basin which is on the Moon. The mare has a

tint which is slightly blue in colour and stands out from the rest of the moon.

MCQs on Universe/Sun/Planets/Earth-1

1. The colour of the star is an indication of its

(a) Distance from the earth

(b) Distance from the sun

(c) Temperature

(d) Luminosity

2. The planet nearest to the sun is

(a) Mercury

(b) Earth

(c) Venus

(d) Pluto

3. The group of stars arranged in a definite pattern is called

(a) Milky way

(b) Constellation

(c) Andromeda

(d) Solar system

4. The Asteroid belt is found between which of the following?

(a) Earth and Mars

(b) Jupiter and Saturn

(c) Mars and Jupiter

(d) Saturn and Uranus

5. Which one of the following is the largest satellite in solar system?

(a) Ganymede

(b) Titan

(c) Europa

(d) Triton

6. Which planet takes the longest time to go around the sun?

(a) Earth

(b) Jupiter

(c) Uranus

(d) Neptune

7. The planet which is called twin sister of the Earth is

(a) Mercury

(b) Venus

(c) Mars

(d) Uranus

8. The distance of Moon from the Earth is

(a) 384 thousand kms.

(b) 300 thousand kms.

(c) 350 thousand kms.

(d) 446 thousand kms.

9. Which planet was named after the Roman God Zeus?

(a) Earth

(b) Mars

(c) Venus

(d) Jupiter

10. Which of the following planets is smaller in size than the Earth?

(a) Venus

(b) Uranus

(c) Saturn

(d) Neptune

11. The largest planet in our solar system is

(a) Earth

(b) Uranus

(c) Jupiter

(d) Saturn

12. Which of the following planets has largest number of satellites or moons?

(a) Jupiter

(b) Neptune

(c) Earth

(d) Saturn

13. Which of the following planets is called “Blue planet”?

(a) Venus

(b) Earth

(c) Uranus

(d) Mercury

14. The approximate diameter of Earth is

(a) 4200 km

(b) 6400 km

(c) 3400 km

(d) 12800 km

15. The Earth rotates around its axis from

(a) North to South

(b) South to North

(c) East to West

(d) West to East

16. What is the time taken by the Earth to complete one rotation on its axis?

(a) 23 hr 52 min 4 sec

(b) 23 hr 56 min 4 sec

(c) 24 hr

(d) 24 hr 12 min 6 sec

17. Which of the following is the nearest star of Earth?

(a) Sirius

(b) Sun

(c) Rigel

(d) Vega

18. Which one of the following planets is the brightest?

(a) Mars

(b) Mercury

(c) Venus

(d) Jupiter

19. The mean radius of the Earth is

(a) 3200 km

(b) 6400 km

(c) 8400 km

(d) 12800 km

20. Which one of the following planets rotates clockwise?

(a) Earth

(b) Mars

(c) Venus

(d) Mercury

21. The nuclear fuel in the Sun is

(a) Helium

(b) Hydrogen

(c) Oxygen

(d) Uranium

22. The outermost layer of the sun is called

(a) Chromosphere

(b) Photosphere

(c) Lithosphere

(d) Corona

23. The surface temperature of sun is nearly

(a) 2000 K

(b) 4000 K

(c) 6000 K

(d) 8000 K

24. What is meant by the term “Midnight Sun”?

(a) Twilight

(b) Rising sun

(c) Very bright moon

(d) Sun shining in the polar circle for long time

25. Which of the following planets is known as “Red Planet”?

(a) Earth

(b) Mars

(c) Jupiter

(d) Saturn

Answer Key:

1. (c) The colour of the star is an indication of its temperature. The glowing is

caused by something called Black-Body radiation, which has to do with the

heat energy trying to radiate away in more and more energetic wavelengths.

Red stars are relatively cool at only a few thousand degrees Celsius, white

stars are hot at about ten thousand degrees, and blue stars are the hottest.

2. (a) The planet nearest to the sun is Mercury. Mercury is the smallest and closest

to the Sun of the eight planets in the Solar System, with an orbital period of

about 88 Earth days.

3. (b) The group of stars arranged in a definite pattern is called constellation. In

modern astronomy, a constellation is an internationally defined area of the celestial sphere. These areas are grouped around asterisms, which are

patterns formed by prominent stars within apparent proximity to one another

on Earth’s night sky.

4. (c) The Asteroid belt is found between Mars and Jupiter. The large majority of

known asteroids orbit in the asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and

Jupiter, or are co-orbital with Jupiter.

5. (a) Ganymede is the largest satellite in solar system. Ganymede is a satellite of

Jupiter and the largest moon in the Solar System. It is the seventh moon and

third Galilean satellite outward from Jupiter. Completing an orbit in roughly

seven days, Ganymede participates in a 1:2:4 orbital resonance with the

moons Europa and Io, respectively. It has a diameter of 5,268 km (3,273 mi),

8% larger than that of the planet Mercury, but has only 45% of the latter’s

mass.

6. (d) Neptune takes the longest time to go around the sun. Neptune orbits the Sun

at an average distance of 4.5 billion km. Like all the planets in the Solar

System, Neptune follows an elliptical path around the Sun, varying its distance

to the Sun at different points along its orbit.

7. (b) The planet which is called twin sister of earth is Venus. Venus is known as the

Earth’s twin because of its similar size, chemical composition and density.

However, due to its toxic atmosphere, Venus is not habitable.

8. (a) The distance of moon from the Earth is 384 thousands kms. The Moon is the

only natural satellite of the Earth and the fifth largest moon in the Solar

System. It is the largest natural satellite of a planet in the Solar System relative

to the size of its primary, having 27% the diameter and 60% the density of

Earth, resulting in ¹⁄􀹢􀹛 its mass.

9. (d) Jupiter was named on the Roman God Zeus. Zeus is the “Father of Gods and

men” who rules the Olympians of Mount Olympus as a father rules the family

according to the ancient Greek religion. He is the God of sky and thunder in

Greek mythology. Zeus is etymologically cognate with and, under Hellenic

influence, became particularly closely identified with Roman Jupiter.

10. (a) Venus is smaller in size than the Earth. Diameter of earth is12,742 km while

that of Venus is 12,100 km

11. (c) The largest planet in our solar system is Jupiter. Jupiter is the fifth planet from

the Sun and the largest planet in the Solar System. It is a gas giant with mass

one-thousandth of that of the Sun but is two and a half times the mass of all

the other planets in the Solar System combined.

12. (a) Jupiter has largest number of satellites or moons. The planet Jupiter has 67

confirmed moons. This gives it the largest retinue of moons with “reasonably

secure” orbits of any planet in the Solar System.

13. (b) Earth is called the ‘Blue Planet’ due to the abundant water on its surface. This

is because liquid water covers most of the surface of the planet. The Earth has

the right mass, chemical composition, and location can support liquid water.

14. (d) The approximately diameter of Earth is 12800 km. The rotation of the planet

has slightly flattened it out, so it has a larger diameter at the equator than at

the poles. The equatorial diameter of Earth is 12,756 km, its polar diameter is 12,713 km, and its average diameter, which is referred to in common usage, is

12,742 km or 7,926 miles.

15. (d) The Earth rotates around its axis from west to east. Earth’s rotation is the

rotation of the solid Earth around its own axis. The Earth rotates from the west

towards the east. As viewed from the North Star or polestar Polaris, the Earth

turns counter-clockwise.

16. (b) The time taken by the Earth to complete one rotation on its axis is 23 hr-56

min 4 sec.

17. (b) The distance from sun to Earth is called an astronomical unit (AV) one of the

Nearest star sirius is more than thousands of AV distance from Earth.

18. (c) Venus is the brightest planet. It is third brightest object in sky after the sun and

moon.

19. (b) The mean radius of Earth is 6371 km or approximately a 6400 km

20. (c) The planet Venus rotates clock wise. On Venus, the rotation is backwards, or

clockwise, which is called retrograde. Standing on the surface of Venus, one

would be able to see the sun rising from the west.

21. (b) The nuclear fuel in the sun is Hydrogen. Actually the sun isn’t “burning,” but

instead its heat and light comes from its core where the element hydrogen is

continuously being converted into the element helium. This known as nuclear

fusion and is basically the same thing a hydrogen bomb does.

22. (d) The outermost layer of the sun is called corona. A corona is a type of plasma

that surrounds the Sun and other celestial bodies. The Sun’s corona extends

millions of kilometers into space and is most easily seen during a total solar

eclipse, but it is also observable with a coronagraph.

23. (c) The surface temperature of Sun is 5778 K or approximately 6000 K.

24. (c) Midnight Sun Occurs in Polar region in Summer months where sun remains

visible at local midnight.

25. (b) Mars is known as Red planet. Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun and the

second smallest planet in the Solar System. Named after the Roman God of

war, it is often described as the “Red Planet” because the iron oxide prevalent

on its surface gives it a reddish appearance. Mars is a terrestrial planet with a

thin atmosphere, having surface features reminiscent both of the impact

craters of the Moon and the volcanoes, valleys, deserts, and polar ice caps of

Earth.

Read More MCQs on Universe/Sun/Planets/Earth

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Fundamental MCQs Indian Geography-24

576. Main constituents of biogas are

(a) Methane and carbon monoxide

(b) Butane and carbon monoxide

(c) Methane and carbon dioxide

(d) Ethylene and carbon dioxide

Ans: (c)

577. Consider the following mountain ranges of Jammu and Kashmir:

1. Karakoram

2. Ladakh

3. Zanskar

4. Pir Panjal

Which of the following arrangements is correct according to their locations from north to south?

(a) 2, 3, 1, 4

(b) 1, 4, 3, 2

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 2, 4, 1, 3

Ans: (c)

578. Which of the following is a non-metallic mineral?

(a) Bauxite

(b) Magnesium

(c) Gypsum

(d) Manganese

Ans: (c)

579. India's land border with the neighboring countries is, in length, approximately

(a) 8 thousand km

(b) 15 thousand km

(c) 10 thousand km

(d) 16 thousand km

Ans: (c)

580. Which of the following rivers of the Indian sub-continent covers the longest distance from its source to the sea into which it drains?

(a) Indus

(b) Godavari

(c) Ganga

(d) Brahmaputra

Ans: (c)

581. The paleomagnetic results obtained from India indicate that in the past, the Indian landmass has moved

(a) northward

(b) southward

(c) eastward

(d) westward

Ans: (a)

582. Match the following:

List-I List-II

A. Deccan Traps 1. Late cenozoic

B. Western Ghats 2. Pre-cambrian

C. Aravalli 3. Cretaceous Eocene

D. Namada-Tapi Alluvial deposits 4. Cambrian

5. Plestocene

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 5 1 4

(b) 3 1 2 5

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 1 4 2 5

Ans: (b)

583. The only State which produces saffron in the Indian Union is

(a) Assam

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Jammu and Kashmir

(d) Sikkim

Ans: (c)

584. The total length of the river Ganga is about

(a) 3000 km

(b) 3425 km

(c) 2500 km

(d) 2750 km

Ans: (c)

585. The type of crop which is able to fix nitrogen from air is known as

(a) Legume

(b) Rice

(c) Tuber

(d) Potato

Ans: (a)

586. Indian Standard Time (IST) is determined according to the local time of which one of the following longitudes?

(a) 0º Longitude

(b) 68º E Longitude

(c) c) E Longitude

(d) d) E Longitude

Ans: (d)

587. Which one of the following Indian towns has the longest sea beach?

(a) Kolkata

(b) Mumbai

(c) Chennai

(d) Cochin

Ans: (c)

588. Which of the following States has the most critical problem of erosion of its coastal areas by the sea?

(a) Kerala

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) West Bengal

(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: (a)

589. Coal is an example of

(a) Igneous rocks

(b) Sedimentary rocks

(c) Metamorphic rocks

(d) None of the above

Ans: (b)

590. River Luni drains into

(a) Kerala Coast

(b) Ganga delta

(c) Godavari delta

(d) Rann of Kachchh

Ans: (d)

591. The State in India which produces the largest quantity of common salt is

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Kerala

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Gujarat

Ans: (d)

592. Urea is prepared by the chemical reactions of

(a) Ammonium sulphate and calcium chloride

(b) Ammonia and carbon dioxide

(c) Chlorine and water

(d) Acetamide and ethyl alcohol

Ans: (b)

593. For the study of climate which of the following is not relevant?

(a) Flash point

(b) Steenson screen

(c) Dew point

(d) Hygrogram

Ans: (a)

594. The famous Amarnath and Vaishnodevi shrines are located in the State of

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Jammu and Kashmir

Ans: (d)

595. Which of the following is not a seed borne disease?

(a) Redrot of sugarcane

(b) Potato mosaic

(c) Brown leaf spot of rice

(d) Black gram of cotton

Ans: (b)

596. The Buckincham Canal is an inland water way in

(a) United Kingdom

(b) Australia

(c) India

(d) New Zealand

Ans: (c)

597. The Chennai – Bengaluru – Coimbatore - Madurai region is ______.

(a) A major industrial region

(b) A major agricultural region

(c) Mangrove forest region

(d) Dry Mountainous (Hilly) region

Ans: (a)

598. In which of the following states are the Aravalli mountains located

(a) Jammu and Kashmir

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Madhya Pradesh

Ans: (c)

599. Which of the following is not one of the reasons why the northern mountains are of great importance to India

(a) They protect the country from invasion

(b) They influence the climate

(c) They provide water to the plains

(d) They possess valuable vegetation and animal life

Ans: (a)

600. Which of the following statements about the Himalayan rivers is not correct?

(a) They have very large basins

(b) Many of them pass through giant gorges

(c) They perform very little erosion activity

(d) Over the plain they display a strong meandering tendency and often shift their beds

Ans: (c)

Read More Fundamental MCQs on Indian Geography

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Fundamental MCQs Indian Geography-23

551. Gold Mines in India are located mainly in

(a) Kolar

(b) Raniganj

(c) Jadugoda

(d) Veeranam

(e) None of these

Ans: (a)

552. Which of the following is known as the 'Pearl City'?

(a) Kandla

(b) Tuticorin

(c) Kochi

(d) Hyderabad

Ans: (d)

553. The Buckingham Canal, which has been declared a National Waterway of India recently, is a canal running from

(a) Punjab to Haryana

(b) Mumbai to Goa

(c) Vijayawada to Villupuram

(d) Cochin to Kozhikode

(e) Kanyakumari to Rameshwaram

Ans: (c)

554. In which of the following states is Rosa Power Plant located?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Odisha

(d) Haryana

(e) Punjab

Ans: (b)

555. Which of the following is NOT a food crop?

(a) Maize

(b) Bajra

(c) Paddy

(d) Wheat

(e) Cotton

Ans: (e)

556. India has the second largest concentration of tribal people in the world. Which of the following countries is the first in this regard?

(a) France

(b) China

(c) Iraq

(d) Iran

(e) Africa

Ans: (e)

557. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious type of winds which bring a lot of disaster?

(a) Trade winds

(b) Hurricane

(c) Cirrus

(d) Stratus

(e) None of these

Ans: (b)

558. In which of the following states, Teesta Urja hydro-power project is proposed to be set up?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) West Bengal

(d) Arunachal Pradesh

(e) Assam

Ans: (a)

559. India shares its border with China along the Himalayan range. Which of the following states touches the border of China?

(a) Punjab

(b) Bihar

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Chhattisgarh

(e) All of these

Ans: (c)

560. Which of the following is NOT a plant product?

(a) Camphor

(b) Aloe vera

(c) Vanilla

(d) Kiwi

(e) All are plant products

Ans: (e)

561. Major producer of mulberry silk in India is

(a) Jammu and Kashmir

(b) Jharkhand

(c) Karnataka

(d) Assam

(e) Himachal Pradesh

Ans: (c)

562. Which of the following places in India does not have a nuclear power plant?

(a) Narora

(b) Rawatbhata

(c) Silchar

(d) Tarapore

(e) Kalpakkam

Ans: (c)

563. Kanha Tiger Reserve is situated in Mandla district of

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Chhattisgarh

(d) Madhya Pradesh

(e) Maharashtra

Ans: (d)

564. Which one of the following Indian rivers does not have a delta at its egress?

(a) Tapi

(b) Godavari

(c) Cauvery

(d) Mahanadi

Ans: (a)

565. The Jawar mines of Udaipur are famous for

(a) Marble

(b) Zinc

(c) Granite

(d) Bauxite

Ans: (b)

566. Match the following:

List-I List-II

A. Varanasi I. Indian Rare Earths Ltd

B. Koyali II. Hindustan Machine Tools Ltd

C. Pinjore III. Diesel Locomotive Works

D. Alwaye IV. Petro-Chemical Complex

Codes:

A B C D

(a) I II III IV

(b) IV III II I

(c) III IV II I

(d) III IV I II

Ans: (c)

567. Oil refinery located near the of field is

(a) Nunamati

(b) Visakhapatnam

(c) Mathura

(d) Koyali

Ans: (a)

568. Khasi and Garo tribes mainly live in

(a) Kerala

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Mizoram

Ans: (c)

569. The largest producer of wood pulp is

(a) India

(b) Canada

(c) Russia

(d) USA

Ans: (d)

570. The places Alwaye, Koyna and Korba have

(a) Aluminium Industries

(b) Thermal Power Plants

(c) Oil Refineries

(d) Nuclear Power Plants

Ans: (a)

571. 'Blight' the disease of potato can be cured by

(a) Dionine

(b) Bordeaux mixture

(c) Diathane

(d) DDT

Ans: (b)

572. Match the following:

List-I List-II

(Lakes) (States)

A. Wular 1. Odisha

B. Chilka 2. Rajasthan

C. Loktak 3. Manipur

D. Nakki 4. Jammu and Kashmir

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 1 3 2

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 3 2 1

Ans: (b)

573. India's indigenous pigs generally give birth to _____ young ones at a time.

(a) 10 to 12

(b) 8 to 10

(c) 4 to 6

(d) 2 to 4

Ans: (c)

574. The principal cause of soil damage in Punjab and Haryana is

(a) Deforestation

(b) Soil erosion

(c) Excessive cultivation

(d) Salinity and water logging

Ans: (d)

575. Which one of the following is a breed of cattle famous for high milk yield as well as draught capacity?

(a) Mewati

(b) Tharparkar

(c) Kankrej

(d) Red Sindhi

Ans: (b)

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Fundamental MCQs Indian Geography-22

526. What is meant by 'energy crisis'?

(a) Shortage of hydro-electricity

(b) Malnutrition leading to short supply of energy in the human body

(c) Shortage of the thermal power

(d) Impending danger of total exhaustion of fossil fuels like coal and petroleum

Ans: (b)

527. The Bhadravati Steel Plant is the only plant which is managed by a State Government. Which is that State Government?

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Odisha

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Karnataka

Ans: (d)

528. Which of the following is the major centre of production of railway wagons?

(a) Asansol

(b) Chittaranjan

(c) Jamshedpur

(d) Perambur

Ans: (a)

529. Which of the following fertilisers provides maximum amount of nitrogen?

(a) Calcium Nitrate

(b) Urea

(c) Ammonium Sulphate

(d) Nitrolium

Ans: (b)

530. Which sugar is obtained from grapes

(a) Lactose

(b) Maltose

(c) Glucose

(d) Sucrose

Ans: (c)

531. Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an 'ecological hot spot'?

(a) Western Himalayas

(b) Eastern Himalayas

(c) Western Ghats

(d) Eastern Ghats

Ans: (c)

532. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for concentration of jute mills in Kolkata?

(a) Cheap and abundant power supply

(b) Availability of coal

(c) A large supply of cheap labour and water required for industry

(d) The port of Kolkata can easily export all the jute goods

Ans: (a)

533. The thermal power plant of Bokaro is located in

(a) Bihar

(b) Chhattisgarh

(c) Jharkand

(d) Odisha

Ans: (c)

534. Khetri project in Rajasthan has been set up for producing

(a) Zinc

(b) Manganese

(c) Copper

(d) Salt

Ans: (c)

535. What is Pimpri, a place in Maharashtra, known for

(a) Leather goods

(b) Soaps

(c) Electric goods

(d) Penicillin

Ans: (d)

536. Match the following:

List-I List-II

(Places) (Rivers)

A. Hyderabad 1. Godavari

B. Tiruchirapalli 2. Tapi

C. Surat 3. Cauvery

D. Nasik 4. Musi

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 1 2 3 4

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 2 4 1 3

Ans: (a)

537. Which of the following is not a major rubber producing states?

(a) Kerala

(b) Karnataka

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Odisha

(e) All of these

Ans: (d)

538. Which of the following is a Horticulture Crop?

(a) Paddy

(b) Wheat

(c) Mango

(d) Bajara

(e) None of these

Ans: (c)

539. The Govt. of India has decided to increase the export of cashewnut. Which of the following is NOT a major cashewnut growing State?

(a) Goa

(b) Maharashtra

(c) Kerala

(d) Andhra Pradesh

(e) Uttar Pradesh

Ans: (e)

540. "Indira Gandhi Canal", which is around 450 km long, provides irrigation facility mainly to which of the following states?

(a) Punjab

(b) Haryana

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Gujarat

(e) Rajasthan

Ans: (e)

541. Which of the following la the major rubber producing states in India?

(a) Punjab

(b) Odisha

(c) West Bengal

(d) Kerala

(e) Madhya Pradesh

Ans: (d)

542. The NTPC has decided to set up its first coal-based power plant in which of the following North-Eastern States?

(a) Assam

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Mizoram

(d) Meghalaya

(e) None of these

Ans: (a)

543. Which of the following is a major sugarcane-producing state in India?

(a) Odisha

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Kerala

(d) Maharashtra

(e) Manipur

Ans: (d)

544. Which of the following is/are considered a Renewable Source of Energy?

(A) Wind Energy

(B) Solar Energy

(C) Nuclear Energy

(a) Only (A)

(b) Only (B)

(c) Only (C)

(d) Only (A) and (B)

(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

Ans: (d)

545. Which of the following is NOT a food-grain?

(a) Wheat

(b) Rice

(c) Maize

(d) Jowar

(e) Cotton

Ans: (e)

546. India is the largest tea producing country in the world. It is grown in which of the following states mainly?

(a) Punjab

(b) Haryana

(c) Bihar

(d) Odisha

(e) Assam

Ans: (e)

547. Which of the following cannot be called a rubber-producing state?

(a) Kerala

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Karnataka

(e) All are rubber-producing states

Ans: (b)

548. Which of the following is grown in the cold climate of Kashmir?

(a) Coconut

(b) Palm

(c) Saffron

(d) Jute

(e) All of these

Ans: (c)

549. Which of the following is NOT a plantation crop?

(a) Coconut

(b) Potato

(c) Oil Palm

(d) Cashew

(e) Rubber

Ans: (b)

550. Which of the following is NOT a cash crop?

(a) Tobacco

(b) Cotton

(c) Coffee

(d) Bajara

(e) Tea

Ans: (d)

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Fundamental MCQs Indian Geography-21

501. The capacity of the atmosphere to hold water vapour

(a) Increases as the temperature increases

(b) Decreases as the temperature increases

(c) Increases as the temperature decreases

(d) Decreases as the temperature decreases

Ans: (a)

502. In India the problem of utilisation of agricultural wastes is in

(a) Conversion of cellulose into sugar

(b) Conversion of bran into molasses

(c) Conversion of starch into alcohol

(d) Conversion of sugar into carbohydrates

Ans: (a)

503. Consider the following statements:

1. Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing

2. High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely

3. Tide prevents siltation in the harbours

4. Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports

Which of these statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (d)

504. Which of the following is a new bio-fertilizers?

(a) Green Blue Algae

(b) Nitrates

(c) Compost

(d) Farmyard manure

Ans: (a)

505. Which of the following is a tropical monsoon crop?

(a) Jowar

(b) Chillies

(c) Rice

(d) Ragi

Ans: (c)

506. Soyabeans are rich in

(a) Vitamin A

(b) Proteins

(c) Minerals

(d) Carbohydrates

Ans: (b)

507. Rotation of crops means

(a) Same crop is grown again and again

(b) Two crops are grown simultaneously to increase productivity of the soil

(c) Different crops are grown in succession to maintain the soil fertility

(d) None of the above

Ans: (c)

508. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing size of the grains of soil particles?

1. Clay

2. Silt

3. Sand

4. Gravel

(a) BCDA

(b) ABCD

(c) DCBA

(d) ADCB

Ans: (b)

509. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes gives below the lists:

List-I (Climatic conditions) List-II (Resons)

A. Chennai is warmer than Kolkata 1. North-East Monsoon

B. Snowfall in Himalayas 2. Altitude

C. Rainfall decreases from West Bengal to Punjab 3. Western depressions

D. Sutlej-Ganga Plain gets some rain in winter 4. Distance from sea

5. Latitude

Codes:

A B C D (a) 1 2 4 5

(b) 4 5 1 3

(c) 5 2 4 3

(d) 5 1 3 4

Ans: (c)

510. Which State in India is known as the 'Granary of India'?

(a) Haryana

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Punjab

(d) Kerala

Ans: (c)

511. What is the main advantage of transplantation method in rice cultivation?

(a) This method ensures maximum utilization of land

(b) It is helpful in achieving an economical use of water and a higher yield of grain

(c) It helps in early harvesting

(d) The draining of water from the field before harvesting is made easy

Ans: (b)

512. With reference to the area devoted to its cultivation pulses hold the third place in India. Which crops occupy the first and second places respectively?

(a) Rice and Wheat

(b) Rice and Cotton

(c) Jowar and Cotton

(d) Jowar and Bajara

Ans: (a)

513. Which of the following types of soils is most suited for tea cultivation?

(a) Laterite soils

(b) Red soils

(c) Black soils

(d) Alluvial soils

Ans: (a)

514. Which of the following is not one of the important steps in processing tea leaves?

(a) Withering

(b) Rolling

(c) Fermenting

(d) Drying

Ans: (c)

515. What is the best source of pure cellulose?

(a) Coir

(b) Cotton fibre

(c) Jute fibre

(d) Hemp

Ans: (b)

516. Which is the best irrigated State in India?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Punjab

(d) Maharashtra

Ans: (c)

517. Which of the following is not a multi-purpose project involving more than one State in India?

(a) Nagarjunasagar

(b) Damodar Valley Corporation

(c) Bhakra Nangal

(d) Chambal

Ans: (a)

518. On which of the following sets of rivers are Nagarjunasagar, Ukai, Hirakud, and Thein Dam located respectively?

(a) Krishna, Mahanadi, Godavari, Tapi

(b) Cauvery, Krishna, Narmada, Beas

(c) Krishna, Tapi, Mahanadi, Ravi

(d) Godavari, Brahmaputra, Narmada, Yamuna

Ans: (c)

519. What was the primary purpose of constructing the Farakka Barrage?

(a) Preservation and maintenance of Kolkata port for navigation

(b) To supply Ganga water to Bangladesh

(c) To bring additional area of West Bengal under irrigation

(d) To meet the chronic power shortage in Kolkata

Ans: (a)

520. Which dam in India has the distinction of being the longest main stream dam in the world?

(a) Bhakra Nangal Dam

(b) Rihand Dam

(c) Tehri Dam

(d) Kosi Project

Ans: (c)

521. Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar which has the distinction of being the largest man-made lake in Asia, forms part of

(a) Damodar Valley Project

(b) Chambal Project

(c) Tehri Dam

(d) Kosi Project

Ans: (b)

522. Which one of the following provides the correct sequence of occurrence of four towns/cities as one proceeds from west to east?

(a) Rajkot, Baroda, Kharagpur, Bilaspur

(b) Bikaner, Aligarh, Darbhanga, Nowgong

(c) Indore, Rourkela, Agartala, Jamshedpur

(d) Nasik, Aurangabad, Berhampur, Nanded

Ans: (b)

523. Which of the following is not one of the non-conventional sources of energy in India?

(a) Solar Energy

(b) Geo-Thermal Energy

(c) Thermal Energy

(d) Tidal Power

Ans: (c)

524. Which of the following non-conventional sources of energy holds out the maximum promise in India?

(a) Solar Energy

(b) Geothermal Energy

(c) Tidal Energy

(d) Wind Energy

Ans: (a)

525. In India the most important source of energy is

(a) Petroleum

(b) Coal

(c) Nuclear

(d) Hydro-electricity

Ans: (b)

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Fundamental MCQs Indian Geography-20

476. The Indian peninusula as compared to the north Indian plains is

(a) Rich in mineral

(b) More stable

(c) At a higher level

(d) All the above

Ans: (d)

477. The Islands of Lakshadweep are

(a) of volcanic origin

(b) of coral origin

(c) of continental origin

(d) elevated portions of sub-marine mountains

Ans: (b)

478. There is no Scheduled Caste population in

(a) Punjab

(b) Nagaland

(c) Gujarat

(d) Manipur

Ans: (b)

479. There is no Scheduled Tribe population in

(a) Kerala

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Punjab

(d) Rajasthan

Ans: (c)

480. Wild asses are found in

(a) Parkal, Warangal (Andhra Pradesh)

(b) Rann of Kutch, Gujarat

(c) Manas, Barpeta (Assam)

(d) Chandraprabha, Varanasi

Ans: (b)

481. Heavy water plants are generally located near

(a) Major irrigation projects

(b) Hydroelectric projects

(c) Fertilizer plants

(d) Nuclear power plants

Ans: (c)

482. The driest part of India is

(a) Rann of Kutch

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Leh

(d) Hinterland of Western Ghats

Ans: (c)

483. The edible oil commonly used in India for preparation of toilet soap is

(a) Linseed oil

(b) Mustard oil

(c) Soyabean oil

(d) Coconut oil

Ans: (d)

484. Major coal deposits of India occur in

(a) Seams separated by igneous rocks

(b) Seams separated by sedimentary rocks

(c) Seams separated by metamorphic rocks

(d) Open cast mines

Ans: (b)

485. Jute fibre is obtained from which part of the Jute?

(a) Root

(b) Stem

(c) Leaf

(d) Fruit

Ans: (b)

486. Which part of India receives rainfall from both the South- West and North-West monsoons?

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Odisha

(c) Lakshadweep Islands

(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Ans: (d)

487. The Ganges in Bangladesh is known as the

(a) Farakka

(b) Brahmaputra

(c) Padma

(d) Sonar

Ans: (c)

488. The Idukki hydroelectric plant la on the river

(a) Godavari

(b) Krishna

(c) Periyar

(d) Tungabhadra

Ans: (c)

489. A fertile soil, suitable growing common crops, is like to have a pH value of

(a) three

(b) four

(c) six to seven

(d) nine to ten

Ans: (d)

490. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Teak : Jammu and Kashmir

(b) Deodar : Madhya Pradesh

(c) Sandalwood : Kerala

(d) Sundari : West Bengal

Ans: (d)

491. The largest area under plantation in India is in

(a) Kerala

(b) Karnataka

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Assam

Ans: (d)

492. Match the following:

List-I List-II

(Mangrove) (State)

A. Achra Ratnagiri 1. Karnataka

B. Coondapur 2. Kerala

C. Pichavaram 3. Andhra Pradesh

D. Vembanad 4. Maharashtra

5. Tamil Nadu

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 5 4

(b) 4 5 3 2

(c) 2 5 3 4

(d) 4 1 5 2

Ans: (d)

493. Open stunted forests with bushes and having long roots and sharp thorns or spines are commonly found in

(a) Eastern Odisha

(b) North-Eastern Tamil Nadu

(c) Shiwaliks and Terai regions

(d) Western Andhra Pradesh

Ans: (d)

494. The shape of the Himalayas is like

(a) A straight line

(b) An arc

(c) A zigzag line

(d) A spiral

Ans: (b)

495. When dew point la reached it is said that at that temperature

(a) the atmosphere is said to be saturated with water vapour

(b) the relative humidity of the atmosphere is 100%

(c) the atmosphere can hold no more water vapour

(d) All the above

Ans: (a)

496. The approximate age of the Aravillis range is

(a) 370 million years

(b) 470 million years

(c) 570 million years

(d) 670 million years

Ans: (d)

497. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(a) Ghaggar's water is utilized in the Indira Gandhi Canal

(b) Narmada raised from Amarkantak region

(c) Nizatn Sagar is situtated on the Manjra river

(d) Penganga is a tributary of the Godavai

Ans: (a)

498. Which of the following is a natural harbour?

(a) Visakhapatnam

(b) Mumbai

(c) Chennai

(d) Kolkata

Ans: (b)

499. Which of the following hill stations is not located in Himachal Pradesh?

(a) Kulu

(b) Manali

(c) Shimla

(d) Ranikhet

Ans: (d)

500. Which of the following States is called the "Garden of Spices"?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Kerala

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Tamil Nadu

Ans: (b)

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